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The CAPM exam covers various topics such as project integration management, scope management, time management, cost management, quality management, human resource management, communications management, risk management, procurement management, and stakeholder management. CAPM exam consists of 150 multiple-choice questions and lasts for three hours. To pass the exam, candidates must score at least 61% or higher.
NEW QUESTION # 555
A stakeholder expresses a need not known to the project manager.
The project manager most likely missed a step in which stakeholder management process?
- A. Plan Stakeholder Management
- B. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
- C. Control Stakeholder Engagement
- D. Identify Stakeholders
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 556
The number of potential communication channels for a project with 5 stakeholders is:
- A. 12.
- B. 24.
- C. 10.
- D. 20.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
number of communication channels within a project. N (N - 1) / 2, where N represents the number of identified stakeholders.
NEW QUESTION # 557
The following is a network diagram for a project.
The free float for Activity E is how many days?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 558
Project management processes ensure the:
- A. efficient means to achieve the project objectives
- B. alignment with organizational strategy
- C. performance of the project team
- D. effective flow of the project throughout its life cycle
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume B
Explanation:
Project management processes. These processes ensure the effective flow of the project throughout its life cycle. These processes encompass the tools and techniques involved in applying the skills and capabilities described in the Knowledge Areas (Sections 4 through 13)
NEW QUESTION # 559
What tool or technique can improve a products final characteristics?
- A. Risk report
- B. Problem solving
- C. Design for X (DfX)
- D. Process analysis
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 560
The risk management team of a software project has decided that due to the lack of adequate talent in the company, development of a specific part of the system is under high risk, so the team has decided to outsource it.
This is an example of which risk response?
- A. Share
- B. Accept
- C. Avoid
- D. Transfer
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 561
An input to the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process is the:
- A. communications management plan.
- B. project management plan.
- C. quality management plan.
- D. schedule management plan.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
Explanation:
6.1.3.1 Schedule Management Plan
A component of the project management plan that establishes the criteria and the activities for developing, monitoring, and controlling the schedule. The schedule management plan may be formal or informal, highly detailed or broadly framed, based upon the needs of the project, and includes appropriate control thresholds.
For example, the schedule management plan can establish the following:
Project schedule model development. The scheduling methodology and the scheduling tool to be used in
the development of the project schedule model are specified.
Level of accuracy. The acceptable range used in determining realistic activity duration estimates is specified
and may include an amount for contingencies.
Units of measure. Each unit used in measurements (such as staff hours, staff days, or weeks for time
measures, or meters, liters, tons, kilometers, or cubic yards for quantity measures) is defined for each of the resources.
Organizational procedures links. The WBS (Section 5.4) provides the framework for the schedule
management plan, allowing for consistency with the estimates and resulting schedules.
Project schedule model maintenance. The process used to update the status and record progress of the
project in the schedule model during the execution of the project is defined.
Control thresholds. Variance thresholds for monitoring schedule performance may be specified to indicate
an agreed-upon amount of variation to be allowed before some action needs to be taken. Thresholds are typically expressed as percentage deviations from the parameters established in the baseline plan.
Rules of performance measurement. Earned value management (EVM) rules or other physical
measurement rules of performance measurement are set. For example, the schedule management plan may specify:
○○ Rules for establishing percent complete,
○○ Control accounts at which management of progress and schedule will be measured,
○○ Earned value measurement techniques (e.g., baselines, fixed-formula, percent complete, etc.) to be employed (for more specific information, refer to the Practice Standard for Earned Value Management) [9],
○○ Schedule performance measurements such as schedule variance (SV) and schedule performance index (SPI) used to assess the magnitude of variation to the original schedule baseline.
Reporting formats. The formats and frequency for the various schedule reports are defined.
Process descriptions. Descriptions of each of the schedule management processes are documented.
Process: 11.4 Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
Definition: The process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it produces quantitative risk information to support decision making in order to reduce project uncertainty.
Inputs
1. Risk management plan
2. Cost management plan
3. Schedule management plan
4. Risk register
5. Enterprise environmental factors
6. Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
1. Data gathering and representation techniques
2. Quantitative risk analysis and modeling techniques
3. Expert judgment
Outputs
1. Project documents updates
NEW QUESTION # 562
A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is the simplest form of what type of contract?
- A. Fixed price or lump-sum
- B. Cost-plus-fixed-fee
- C. Cost-reimbursable
- D. Time and material
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
Explanation:
* Units of measure. Each unit used in measurements (such as staff hours, staff days, weeks for time measures; or meters, liters, tons, kilometers, or cubic yards for quantity measures; or lump sum in currency form) is defined for each of the resources.
Fixed-price contracts. This category of contracts involves setting a fixed total price for a defined product, service, or result to be provided. Fixed-price contracts may also incorporate financial incentives for achieving or exceeding selected project objectives, such as schedule delivery dates, cost and technical performance, or anything that can be quantified and subsequently measured. Sellers under fixed-price contracts are legally obligated to complete such contracts, with possible financial damages if they do not. Under the fixed-price arrangement, buyers need to precisely specify the product or services being procured. Changes in scope may be accommodated, but generally with an increase in contract price.
NEW QUESTION # 563
Two members of the team are having a conflict..............or partially resolve the problem Two members of the team are having a conflict. The project manager decides that, in this case, the best solution is to bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties, in order to temporarily or partially resolve the problem.
Which technique should the project manager use?
- A. Collaborate/Problem Solve
- B. Withdraw/Avoid
- C. Compromise/Reconcile
- D. Smooth/Accommodate
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 564
What is the purpose of the project schedule management.
- A. It provides the relationships among the project activities and their risks.
- B. Determines in details the resources and time that each task will require to be done
- C. Represents how and when the project will deliver the results defined in the project scope.
- D. Estimates specific time and the deadline when the products, services and results will be delivered.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 565
Which is the correct formula for calculating expected activity cost for three-point estimating?
- A. Ce = (6C0 + Cm + Cp)/4
- B. Ce = (C0 + 6Cm + Cp)/4
- C. Ce = (C0 + 4Cm + Cp)/6
- D. Ce = (C0 + Cm + 4Cp) / 6
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 566
The Agile principle "welcome changing requirements, even late in development" relates to which agile manifesto?
- A. Working software over comprehensive documentation
- B. Customer collaboration over contract negotiation
- C. Responding to change over following a plan
- D. Individuals and interactions over processes and tools
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume E
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 567
Which project risk listed in the table below is most likely to occur?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 568
Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:
- A. Expert judgment.
- B. Analytical techniques.
- C. Group decision-making techniques.
- D. Earned value management.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
7.1.2.2 Analytical Techniques
Developing the cost management plan may involve choosing strategic options to fund the project such as:
self-funding, funding with equity, or funding with debt. The cost management plan may also detail ways to finance project resources such as making, purchasing, renting, or leasing. These decisions, like other financial decisions affecting the project, may affect project schedule and/or risks.
Organizational policies and procedures may influence which financial techniques are employed in these decisions. Techniques may include (but are not limited to): payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value.
NEW QUESTION # 569
Updates to organizational process assets such as procurement files, deliverable acceptances, and lessons learned documentation are typical outputs of which process?
- A. Conduct Procurements
- B. Close Project or Phase
- C. Control Procurements
- D. Close Procurements
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
12.4.3.2 Organizational Process Assets Updates
Elements of the organizational process assets that may be updated include, but are not limited to:
Procurement file. A complete set of indexed contract documentation, including the closed contract, is
prepared for inclusion with the final project fles.
Deliverable acceptance. Documentation of formal acceptance of seller-provided deliverables may be
required to be retained by the organization. The Close Procurement process ensures this documentation requirement is satisfed. Requirements for formal deliverable acceptance and how to address nonconforming deliverables are usually defined in the agreement.
Lessons learned documentation. Lessons learned, what has been experienced, and process
improvement recommendations, should be developed for the project fle to improve future procurements.
Process: 12.4 Close Procurements
Definition: The process of completing each project procurement.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it documents agreements and related documentation for future reference.
Inputs
1. Project management plan
2. Procurement documents
Tools & Techniques
1. Procurement audits
2. Procurement negotiations
3. Records management system
Outputs
1. Closed procurements
2. Organizational process assets updates
NEW QUESTION # 570
Which items are components of a project management plan?
- A. Change management plan, process improvement plan, and scope management plan
- B. Scope baseline, project statement of work, and requirements traceability matrix
- C. Schedule management plan, project schedule, and resource calendars
- D. Agreements, procurement management plan, and work performance information
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 571
An input required to develop a preliminary project scope statement is:
- A. Organizational Breakdown Structures
- B. Organizational Structure
- C. Organizational Matrix
- D. Organizational Process Assets
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 572
Which of these is true of project integration management?
- A. Project Integration Management excludes the triple constraints if cost performance index (CPI) equals zero
- B. Project Integration Management is mandatory and more effective in larger projects
- C. Project Integration Management is the responsibility of the project manager
- D. Project Integration Management and expert judgment are mutually exclusive
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume E
NEW QUESTION # 573
Project deliverables that have been completed and checked for correctness through the Control Quality process are known as:
- A. Validated deliverables.
- B. Verified deliverables.
- C. Activity resource requirements.
- D. Acceptance criteria.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 574
In which Project Management Process Group is the project charter developed?
- A. Planning
- B. Monitoring and Controlling
- C. Initiating
- D. Executing
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 575
Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances?
- A. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases.
- B. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases.
- C. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases.
- D. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume C
NEW QUESTION # 576
The cost of nonconformance in a project includes:
- A. training
- B. rework
- C. inspections
- D. testing
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 577
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