CNX-001 Free Certification Exam Easy to Download PDF Format 2026
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NEW QUESTION # 22
A company's IT department is expected to grow from 100 to 200 employees, and the sales department is expected to grow from 1,000 to a maximum of 2,000 employees. Each employee owns a single laptop with a single IP allocated. The network architect wants to deploy network segmentation using the IP range 10.0.0.0
/8. Which of the following is the best solution?
- A. Allocate 10.1.0.0/22 to the IT department. Allocate 10.2.0.0/15 to the sales department.
- B. Allocate 10.1.0.0/30 to the IT department. Allocate 10.2.0.0/16 to the sales department.
- C. Allocate 10.1.0.0/16 to the IT department. Allocate 10.2.1.0/24 to the sales department.
- D. Allocate 10.1.0.0/16 to the IT department. Allocate 10.2.1.0/25 to the sales department.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A /22 gives you 1,022 usable addresses, ample headroom for 200 IT laptops, while a /15 yields 32,766 addresses, covering up to 2,000 sales laptops with room to grow, all within the 10.0.0.0/8 space.
NEW QUESTION # 23
An outage occurred after a software upgrade on core switching. A network administrator thinks that the firmware installed had a bug. Which of the following should the network administrator do next?
- A. Implement the solution.
- B. Establish a plan of action to resolve the issue.
- C. Test the theory to determine cause.
- D. Document lessons learned.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
According to the structured troubleshooting methodology outlined in the CNX-001 objectives, once a potential root cause is identified (in this case, a suspected firmware bug), the next step is to test the theory to confirm the cause before taking action. This helps prevent misdiagnosis and unnecessary configuration changes.
Relevant Extract from CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Study Guide - under "Structured Troubleshooting Methodology":
"After identifying symptoms and forming a theory of probable cause, the next step is to test the theory to verify it is the actual cause of the problem." Other options:
* A. Establishing a plan of action comes after confirming the cause.
* C. Documenting lessons learned is the final step.
* D. Implementing the solution should only occur after the issue is confirmed.
NEW QUESTION # 24
A company hosts a cloud-based e-commerce application and only wants the application accessed from certain locations. The network team configures a cloud firewall with WAF enabled, but users can access the application globally. Which of the following should the network team do?
- A. Reconfigure WAF rules.
- B. Implement a CDN.
- C. Configure a NAT gateway.
- D. Configure geo-restriction.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Geo-restriction lets you block or allow traffic based on the requester's geographic region, preventing access from locations you haven't authorized.
NEW QUESTION # 25
A large commercial enterprise that runs a global video streaming platform recently acquired a small business that serves customers in a geographic area with limited connectivity to the global telecommunications infrastructure. The executive leadership team issued a mandate to deliver the highest possible video streaming quality to all customers around the world. Which of the following solutions should the enterprise architect suggest to meet the requirements?
- A. Utilize CDN for all customers regardless of geographic location.
- B. Use a geographically weighted DNS solution to distribute the traffic.
- C. Deploy multiple local load balancers in the newly added geographic area.
- D. Serve the customers in the acquired area with a highly compressed version of content.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A global Content Delivery Network caches and serves video streams from edge nodes close to end users, minimizing latency and packet loss over limited backhaul links and ensuring the highest possible quality everywhere. By offloading traffic to a CDN, even customers in regions with constrained connectivity will receive optimized streams from the nearest POP rather than traversing the congested core network.
NEW QUESTION # 26
A network engineer is designing a Layer 2 deployment for a company that occupies several floors in an office building. The engineer decides to make each floor its own VLAN but still allow for communication between all user VLANs. The engineer also wants to reduce the time necessary for STP convergence to occur when new switches come online. Which of the following should the engineer enable to accomplish this goal?
- A. BPDU Guard
- B. Priority
- C. Portfast
- D. Tagging
Answer: C
Explanation:
Enabling PortFast on access ports lets them immediately enter the forwarding state, skipping the STP listening
/learning timers, and dramatically speeds up convergence when switches or end-stations come online.
NEW QUESTION # 27
A company provides an API that runs on the public cloud for its customers. A fixed number of VMs host the APIs. During peak hours, the company notices a spike in usage that results in network communication speeds slowing down for all customers. The management team has decided that access for all customers should be fair and accessible at all times. Which of the following is themostcost-effective way to address this issue?
- A. Use an allow list for customers using APIs.
- B. Enable throttling on APIs.
- C. Increase the number of VMs running APIs.
- D. Increase the MTU on the VMs.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Implementing request throttling (rate limiting) lets you cap how many requests each customer can make per time unit. This ensures no single user can saturate the API servers, providing fair access across all customers without the recurring costs of adding more VMs.
NEW QUESTION # 28
A network engineer is installing new switches in the data center to replace existing infrastructure. The previous network hardware had administrative interfaces that were plugged into the existing network along with all other server hardware on the same subnet. Which of the following should the engineer do to better secure these administrative interfaces?
- A. Set the administrative interfaces and the network switch ports on the same VLAN.
- B. Disable unused physical ports on the switches to keep unauthorized users out.
- C. Upgrade all of the switch firmware to the latest hardware levels.
- D. Connect the switch management ports to a separate physical network.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
To better secure administrative interfaces, the best practice is to isolate them from the production network by connecting the management ports to a separate, dedicated management network. This prevents unauthorized access from devices or users on the production subnet and reduces the attack surface.
Relevant Extract from CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Study Guide - under "Securing Network Infrastructure":
"Management interfaces should be placed on a separate out-of-band management network, providing physical and logical separation from user and data traffic." This ensures that only trusted devices on the management network can access the administrative interfaces.
Other options:
* B. Disabling unused ports is good practice but does not address the segregation of management traffic.
* C. Placing admin interfaces and production traffic on the same VLAN exposes them to potential internal threats.
* D. Firmware upgrades are important for security patches but do not isolate the interface.
NEW QUESTION # 29
A company hosts a cloud-based e-commerce application and only wants the application accessed from certain locations. The network team configures a cloud firewall with WAF enabled, but users can access the application globally. Which of the following should the network team do?
- A. Configure geo-restriction
- B. Implement a CDN
- C. Reconfigure WAF rules
- D. Configure a NAT gateway
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
A Web Application Firewall (WAF) is primarily used for inspecting HTTP/HTTPS requests and filtering out malicious traffic, such as SQL injection or cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks. However, WAFs do not restrict access based on geographical location by default.
To control access to the cloud-hosted application based on geographical location, the correct measure is to implement geo-restriction (geo-blocking). This technique limits access to cloud-based resources by using the source IP's geographical origin. Geo-restriction is typically enforced at the cloud firewall or load balancer level.
Relevant Extract from CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Official Objectives:
"Cloud access control policies can enforce geo-restriction settings, ensuring applications and services are only accessible from authorized geographic regions." Also found under "Security Controls in Cloud Deployments" section:
"Geo-restriction uses IP geolocation data to restrict access to services based on geographic criteria, supporting compliance and security requirements."
NEW QUESTION # 30
An architect needs to deploy a new payroll application on a cloud host. End users' access to the application will be based on the end users' role. In addition, the host mustbe deployed on the 192.168.77.32/30 subnet.
Which of the following Zero Trust elements are being implemented in this design? (Choose two.)
- A. Device trust
- B. Least privilege
- C. Microsegmentation
- D. CASB
- E. WAF
- F. MFA
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Least privilege: Granting users access to the payroll app strictly according to their roles enforces the principle of least privilege.
Microsegmentation: Placing the host in its own 192.168.77.32/30 subnet isolates it from other workloads, achieving microsegmentation.
NEW QUESTION # 31
A cloud architect must recommend an architecture approach for a new medical application that requires the lowest downtime possible. Which of the following is the best application deployment strategy given the high- availability requirement?
- A. Four different availability zones using an active-active topology in a single region
- B. Two different availability zones (per region) using an active-passive topology in two different regions
- C. Four different availability zones using an active-passive topology in a single region
- D. Two different availability zones (per region) using an active-active topology in two different regions
Answer: D
Explanation:
Deploying active-active clusters across two AZs in each of two regions ensures the application can survive both AZ- and entire-region failures, delivering the highest possible uptime.
NEW QUESTION # 32
A network administrator receives a ticket from one of the company's offices about video calls that work normally for one minute and then get very choppy. The network administrator pings the video server from that site to ensure that it is reachable:
(Ping output shows responses with varying latency times, including spikes: 11ms, 672ms, 849ms, 92ms, etc.)
Which of the following is most likely the cause of the video call issue?
- A. Throughput
- B. Jitter
- C. Latency
- D. Loss
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Jitter refers to the variation in packet delay during transmission. In the ping output shown, the response times fluctuate significantly (11ms, 672ms, 849ms, 34ms), indicating inconsistent network performance. Such variation leads to a poor experience in real-time applications likevideo calls. High jitter causes packets to arrive out of order, resulting in stuttering or choppy audio/video.
Relevant Extract from CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Study Guide - under "Troubleshooting Real-Time Network Services":
"Jitter is the deviation in packet arrival times and directly affects real-time communications such as VoIP and video conferencing. Consistent latency is tolerable; inconsistent latency (jitter) is disruptive." Other options:
* A. Throughput refers to bandwidth and would cause consistent slowness.
* C. Latency alone, if stable, is acceptable; it's the inconsistency here that causes issues.
* D. Loss would be indicated by missing packets; the ping results show replies to all packets.
NEW QUESTION # 33
Security policy states that all inbound traffic to the environment needs to be restricted, but all external outbound traffic is allowed within the hybrid cloud environment. A new application server was recently set up in the cloud. Which of the following would most likely need to be configured so that the server has the appropriate access set up? (Choose two.)
- A. Firewall
- B. Application gateway
- C. Network security group
- D. IPS
- E. Screened subnet
- F. Port security
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
To meet the requirement of restricting inbound traffic and allowing outbound traffic, two components are most appropriate:
D: Firewall - A firewall enforces ingress and egress traffic policies. It can be configured to deny all inbound traffic by default and allow all outbound traffic, meeting the security policy requirement.
E: Network Security Group (NSG) - In cloud environments such as Azure, NSGs serve as virtual firewalls at the subnet or interface level. NSGs allow you to define rules that block or allow inbound and outbound traffic, and they are the preferred method for enforcing network access rules for cloud resources.
Relevant Extract from CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Study Guide - under "Cloud Network Security Configuration":
"Network security groups and firewalls are key to enforcing inbound and outbound traffic restrictions in hybrid and public cloud environments."
"NSGs are used to define network access control policies for cloud resources at the subnet or NIC level." Other options:
* A. Application gateway controls HTTP/S traffic at Layer 7 but does not manage full access policy.
* B. IPS detects/prevents malicious behavior but is not primarily used for general traffic restriction.
* C. Port security restricts MAC addresses on switch ports, applicable in LANs, not cloud.
* F. A screened subnet (DMZ) can provide additional isolation but is not required for basic traffic control.
NEW QUESTION # 34
A network administrator must connect a remote building at a manufacturing plant to the main building via a wireless connection. Which of the following should the administrator choose to get the greatest possible range from the wireless connection? (Choose two.)
- A. 6GHz
- B. Omnidirectional antenna
- C. 5GHz
- D. Built-in antenna
- E. Patch antenna
- F. 2.4GHz
Answer: E,F
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
2.4GHz has longer range and better wall penetration than higher frequencies like 5GHz or 6GHz.A patch antenna (a type of directional antenna) focuses the signal in one direction, greatly improving range and reliability over long distances between buildings.
Relevant Extract from CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Study Guide - under "Wireless Deployment and Antenna Selection":
"2.4GHz offers extended range over 5GHz. Directional antennas such as patch antennas concentrate signals toward a target, improving distance communication." Other options:
* B & C. Higher frequencies provide faster speeds but shorter range.
* D. Omnidirectional antennas spread signal in all directions, not ideal for point-to-point.
* F. Built-in antennas are generally low gain and insufficient for building-to-building links.
NEW QUESTION # 35
A network architect must ensure only certain departments can access specific resources while on premises.
Those same users cannot be allowed to access those resources once they have left campus. Which of the following would ensure access is provided according to these requirements?
- A. Enabling MFA for only those users within the departments needing access
- B. Configuring geofencing with the IPs of the resources
- C. Configuring UEBA to monitor all access to those resources during non-business hours
- D. Implementing a PKI-based authentication system to ensure access
Answer: B
Explanation:
By defining an IP-based geofence around the on-premises network addresses where those resources reside, you ensure that only users connecting from inside the campus IP ranges can reach them. As soon as the same users leave that network (and thus fall outside the geofenced IP block), access is automatically denied.
NEW QUESTION # 36
After a company migrated all services to the cloud, the security auditor discovers many users have administrator roles on different services. The company needs a solution that:
* Protects the services on the cloud
* Limits access to administrative roles
* Creates a policy to approve requests for administrative roles on critical services within a limited time
* Forces password rotation for administrative roles
* Audits usage of administrative roles
Which of the following is the best way to meet the company's requirements?
- A. Session-based token
- B. Privileged access management
- C. Access control list
- D. Conditional access
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Privileged Access Management (PAM) is the optimal solution to control, audit, and secure administrative access to systems and services. PAM enables role-based approval workflows, time-limited access, auditing, and credential rotation, fully aligning with the requirements.
Relevant Extract from CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Study Guide - under "Identity and Access Controls":
"Privileged Access Management allows fine-grained control over administrator-level access, supports just-in- time access provisioning, password rotation, and audit logging." Other options:
* B. Session-based tokens allow temporary access but do not enforce policies or auditing.
* C. Conditional access provides policy enforcement based on context but lacks full PAM features.
* D. ACLs control access to resources but don't manage privilege workflows or audits.
NEW QUESTION # 37
A network architect is choosing design options for a new SD-WAN installation that has the following requirements:
* All network traffic from the cloud must pass through inspection devices in a dedicated data center.
* Ensure redundancy.
* Centralize egress traffic.
Which of the following network topologies best meets these requirements?
- A. Partial mesh
- B. Point-to-point
- C. Star
- D. Hub-and-spoke
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
The Hub-and-Spoke topology is ideal for SD-WAN environments where traffic from branch offices or cloud workloads must route through a central location (the hub) for inspection, monitoring, or security enforcement.
This structure centralizes egress and allows for redundant spoke paths via the hub. It also simplifies control and enforces compliance policies.
Relevant Extract from CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Study Guide - under "SD-WAN Topologies and Cloud Egress Strategies":
"In a hub-and-spoke topology, spokes (remote offices or cloud nodes) connect through a central hub, allowing for centralized egress, traffic inspection, and simplified routing." Other options:
* A. Point-to-point doesn't scale and lacks centralized control.
* C. Star topology is similar to hub-and-spoke but is more rigid and less suited for SD-WAN scalability.
* D. Partial mesh allows direct spoke-to-spoke communication, bypassing centralized inspection.
NEW QUESTION # 38
A network administrator receives a ticket from one of the company's offices about video calls that work normally for one minute and then get very choppy. The network administrator pings the video server from that site to ensure that it is reachable:
Which of the following ismostlikely the cause of the video call issue?
- A. Throughput
- B. Jitter
- C. Latency
- D. Loss
Answer: B
Explanation:
The wildly varying ping response times (from 11 ms up to 849 ms) indicate high packet-delay variation, which causes the video stream to become choppy after a short period. That fluctuation in latency is known as jitter.
NEW QUESTION # 39
An administrator needs to add a device to the allow list in order to bypass user authentication of an AAA system. The administrator uses MAC filtering and needs to discover the device's MAC address to accomplish this task. The device receives an IP address from DHCP, but the IP address changes daily. Which of the following commands should the administrator run on the device to locate its MAC address?
- A. netstat -an
- B. nslookup
- C. arp -a
- D. ipconfig /all
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
ipconfig /all on a Windows machine displays detailed network configuration, including the MACaddress (referred to as "Physical Address") of the device's network adapter. This is the most direct and accurate method for obtaining the MAC address of the device you are operating.
Relevant Extract from CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Study Guide - under "Device Identification and MAC Filtering":
"MAC addresses can be identified locally using interface configuration tools such as ipconfig /all on Windows or ifconfig/ip on Linux." Other options:
* B. netstat shows open network connections, not MAC addresses.
* C. arp -a shows MAC addresses of other devices in the ARP cache, not the local system.
* D. nslookup queries DNS records and doesn't display MAC information.
NEW QUESTION # 40
A network engineer is establishing a wireless network for handheld inventory scanners in a manufacturing company's warehouse. The engineer needs an authentication mechanism for these scanners that uses the Wi-Fi network and works with the company's Active Directory. The business requires that the solution authenticate the users and authorize the scanners. Which of the following provides the best solution for authentication and authorization?
- A. RADIUS
- B. PKI
- C. LDAP
- D. TACACS+
Answer: A
Explanation:
Using a RADIUS server with 802.1X on the Wi-Fi infrastructure allows the scanners (and their users) to be authenticated against Active Directory and mapped to the correct authorization policies. TACACS+ is geared toward device management, LDAP alone doesn't handle the Wi-Fi 802.1X handshake, and PKI by itself wouldn't provide the user-to-device authorization flow needed. RADIUS gives you both authentication and authorization tied into AD.
NEW QUESTION # 41
New devices were deployed on a network and need to be hardened.
INSTRUCTIONS
Use the drop-down menus to define the appliance-hardening techniques that provide themostsecure solution.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 42
A company is replacing reserved public IP addresses with dynamic IP addresses. The network architect creates a list of assets with some dependencies to these reserved IPs:
Which of the following issues may begin to affect cloud assets after the replacement is made?
- A. IP exhaustion
- B. IP spoofing
- C. IP asymmetric routing
- D. IP reuse
Answer: D
Explanation:
Once you switch those public IPs from reserved (static) to dynamic, the cloud provider can reassign them to other tenants as soon as you deallocate. That "reuse" can lead to unexpected conflicts and broken security rules (for example your NSG allow lists still pointing to the old IPs might suddenly open traffic to an unrelated resource).
NEW QUESTION # 43
A company is experiencing multiple switch failures. The network analyst discovers the following:
* Network recovery time is unacceptable and occurs after the shutdown of some switches.
* Some loops were detected in the network.
* No broadcast storm was detected.
Which of the following is the most cost-effective solution?
- A. Implement STP.
- B. Add a new Layer 3 switch.
- C. Add multiple VLANs.
- D. Implement tagging.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is a Layer 2 protocol that prevents loop conditions in redundant switch topologies. It automatically disables redundant links in a controlled way, allowing one active path at a time.
When a switch fails, STP recalculates and activates an alternate path. In this case, loops are detected, but no broadcast storms occurred, indicating that STP is not in place or not configured properly. Implementing STP is a low-cost and effective solution to resolve these issues.
Relevant Extract from CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Study Guide - under "Switching Technologies and Loop Prevention":
"STP prevents switching loops by dynamically identifying and disabling redundant paths. When a link failure occurs, STP re-converges to restore network connectivity."
"STP is an essential protocol in redundant Layer 2 topologies to avoid broadcast and loop issues." Other options:
* A. A Layer 3 switch adds routing functionality but does not prevent Layer 2 loops.
* B. VLANs segment broadcast domains but do not inherently prevent physical loops.
* D. Tagging (e.g., VLAN tagging) helps with segmentation but not with loop prevention.
NEW QUESTION # 44
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