CompTIA New 2026 CAS-004 Test Tutorial (Updated 620 Questions)
CAS-004 Exam Questions Dumps, Selling CompTIA Products
CompTIA CAS-004 exam is aimed at professionals who are looking to take their cybersecurity skills to the next level. CAS-004 exam is designed to test the candidate's ability to analyze and solve complex security problems, as well as their ability to design and implement advanced security solutions. CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam certification is ideal for individuals who are looking to advance their careers in the cybersecurity field, as it is recognized by a wide range of organizations and employers.
NEW QUESTION # 50
A security manager discovers that a system's log files contain evidence of potential criminal activity. Which of the following actions should be done next?
- A. Contact the user who appears in the log files.
- B. Power off all systems immediately to block any further actions.
- C. Perform a thorough investigation with law enforcement.
- D. Take a system snapshot to preserve any evidence.
- E. Reach out to the human resources department.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 51
A new, online file hosting service is being offered. The service has the following security requirements:
* Threats to customer data integrity and availability should be remediated first.
* The environment should be dynamic to match increasing customer demands.
* The solution should not interfere with customers" ability to access their data at anytime.
* Security analysts should focus on high-risk items.
Which of the following would BEST satisfy the requirements?
- A. Integrating enterprise threat feeds in the existing SIEM
- B. Expanding the use of IPS and NGFW devices throughout the environment
- C. Increasing the number of analysts to Identify risks that need remediation
- D. Implementing a SOAR solution to address known threats
Answer: D
Explanation:
Remediate threats to customer data integrity and availability first, by automatically applying predefined actions or workflows based on the severity and type of the threat.
Allow the environment to be dynamic to match increasing customer demands, by scaling up or down the security resources and processes as needed.
Not interfere with customers' ability to access their data at anytime, by minimizing the human intervention and downtime required for threat response.
Enable security analysts to focus on high-risk items, by reducing the manual tasks and alert fatigue associated with threat detection and response.
NEW QUESTION # 52
A security team is concerned with attacks that are taking advantage of return-oriented programming against the company's public-facing applications. Which of the following should the company implement on the public-facing servers?
- A. ASLR
- B. IDS
- C. TPM
- D. HSM
Answer: A
Explanation:
Address Space Layout Randomization (ASLR) is a security feature that randomizes the memory addresses used by system and application processes, making return-oriented programming (ROP) attacks more difficult to exploit. ROP relies on predictable memory locations, and ASLR disrupts this predictability by randomizing memory locations at runtime. Implementing ASLR on public-facing servers helps mitigate this attack vector.
CASP+ recommends leveraging memory protection mechanisms like ASLR to defend against advanced exploitation techniques like ROP.
References:
* CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 - Enterprise Security Operations (Memory Protection Mechanisms)
* CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Memory Exploit Mitigations and ASLR
NEW QUESTION # 53
A security analyst runs a vulnerability scan on a network administrator's workstation.
The network administrator has direct administrative access to the company's SSO web portal.
The vulnerability scan uncovers cntical vulnerabilities with equally high CVSS scores for the user's browser, OS, email client and an offline password manager.
Which of the following should the security analyst patch FIRST?
- A. OS
- B. Password manager
- C. Email client
- D. Browser
Answer: D
Explanation:
The browser is the application that the security analyst should patch first, given that all the applications have equally high CVSS scores. CVSS stands for Common Vulnerability Scoring System, which is a method for measuring the severity of vulnerabilities based on various factors, such as access conditions, impact, and exploitability. CVSS scores range from 0 to 10, with higher scores indicating higher severity. However, CVSS scores alone are not sufficient to determine the patching priority, as they do not account for other factors, such as the likelihood of exploitation, the exposure of the system, or the criticality of the data. Therefore, the security analyst should also consider the context and the risk of each application when deciding which one to patch first. In this case, the browser is likely to be the most exposed and frequently used application by the network administrator, and also the most likely entry point for an attacker to compromise the system or access the SSO web portal. Therefore, patching the browser first can reduce the risk of a successful attack and protect the system and the data from further damage. Verified References:
https://nvd.nist.gov/vuln-metrics/cvss
https://www.darkreading.com/risk/vulnerability-severity-scores-make-for-poor-patching-priority-researche
NEW QUESTION # 54
A customer reports being unable to connect to a website at www.test.com to consume services. The customer notices the web application has the following published cipher suite:
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the customer's inability to connect?
- A. The server name should be test.com.
- B. The public key should be using ECDSA.
- C. The default should be on port 80.
- D. Weak ciphers are being used.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Reference: https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/23383/ssh-key-type-rsa-dsa-ecdsa-are-there-easy- answers-for-which-to-choose-when
NEW QUESTION # 55
Multiple users have reported that an internal website's status is listed as insecure because the TLS certificate has expired. Although a new certificate was generated, this issue has become a common occurrence throughout the year for multiple websites. Which of the following best prevents recurrence of this issue?
- A. Certificate pinning
- B. OCSP responder
- C. Life-cycle management
- D. Wildcard certificates
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 56
A municipal department receives telemetry data from a third-party provider The server collecting telemetry sits in the municipal departments screened network and accepts connections from the third party over HTTPS. The daemon has a code execution vulnerability from a lack of input sanitization of out-of-bound messages, and therefore, the cybersecurity engineers would like to Implement nsk mitigations. Which of the following actions, if combined, would BEST prevent exploitation of this vulnerability? (Select TWO).
- A. Implementing a TLS inspection proxy on-path to enable monitoring and policy enforcement
- B. Subscribing to a UTM service that enforces privacy controls between the internal network and the screened subnet
- C. Creating a Linux namespace on the telemetry server and adding to it the servicing HTTP daemon
- D. Implementing an EDR and alert on Identified privilege escalation attempts to the SIEM
- E. Using the published data schema to monitor and block off nominal telemetry messages
- F. Installing and configuring filesystem integrity monitoring service on the telemetry server
Answer: A,F
Explanation:
A TLS inspection proxy can be used to monitor and enforce policy on HTTPS connections, ensuring that only valid traffic is allowed through and malicious traffic is blocked. Additionally, a filesystem integrity monitoring service can be installed and configured on the telemetry server to monitor for any changes to the filesystem, allowing any malicious changes to be detected and blocked.
NEW QUESTION # 57
A developer implement the following code snippet.
Which of the following vulnerabilities does the code snippet resolve?
- A. Information leakage
- B. Missing session limit
- C. SQL inject
- D. Buffer overflow
Answer: C
Explanation:
SQL injection is a type of vulnerability that allows an attacker to execute malicious SQL commands on a database by inserting them into an input field. The code snippet resolves this vulnerability by using parameterized queries, which prevent the input from being interpreted as part of the SQL command. Verified Reference: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://owasp.org/www-community/attacks/SQL_Injection
NEW QUESTION # 58
A security engineer has been asked to close all non-secure connections from the corporate network. The engineer is attempting to understand why the corporate UTM will not allow users to download email via IMAPS. The engineer formulates a theory and begins testing by creating the firewall ID 58, and users are able to download emails correctly by using IMAP instead. The network comprises three VLANs:
The security engineer looks at the UTM firewall rules and finds the following:
Which of the following should the security engineer do to ensure IMAPS functions properly on the corporate user network?
- A. Make sure the UTM certificate is imported on the corporate computers.
- B. Contact the email service provider and ask if the company IP is blocked.
- C. Create an IMAPS firewall rule to ensure email is allowed.
- D. Confirm the email server certificate is installed on the corporate computers.
Answer: D
Explanation:
To ensure that IMAPS functions properly on the corporate user network, the security engineer should take the following steps:
Confirm that the email server certificate is installed on the corporate computers. In order to establish a secure connection using IMAPS, the client computer must trust the certificate of the server that it is connecting to. If the email server certificate is not installed on the corporate computers, users will not be able to establish a secure connection using IMAPS.
NEW QUESTION # 59
A company has data it would like to aggregate from its PLCs for data visualization and predictive maintenance purposes. Which of the following is the most likely destination for the tag data from the PLCs?
- A. Local historian
- B. System aggregator
- C. External drive
- D. Cloud storage
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 60
A client is adding scope to a project. Which of the following processes should be used when requesting updates or corrections to the client's systems?
- A. The security engineer asks the project manager to review the updates for the client's system.
- B. The change control board must review and approve a submission.
- C. The information system security officer provides the systems engineer with the system updates.
- D. The implementation engineer requests direct approval from the systems engineer and the Chief Information Security Officer.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The change control board (CCB) is a committee that consists of subject matter experts and managers who decide whether to implement proposed changes to a project. The change control board is part of the change management plan, which defines the roles and processes for managing change within a team or organization. The change control board must review and approve a submission for any change request that affects the scope, schedule, budget, quality, or risks of the project. The change control board evaluates the impact and benefits of the change request and decides whether to accept, reject, or defer it.
NEW QUESTION # 61
A security architect needs to implement a CASB solution for an organization with a highly distributed remote workforce. One Of the requirements for the implementation includes the capability to discover SaaS applications and block access to those that are unapproved or identified as risky. Which of the following would BEST achieve this objective?
- A. Implement cloud infrastructure to proxy all user web traffic and control access according to centralized policy.
- B. Implement cloud infrastructure to proxy all user web traffic to enforce DI-P and encryption policies.
- C. Deploy endpoint agents that monitor local web traffic and control access according to centralized policy.
- D. Deploy endpoint agents that monitor local web traffic to enforce DLP and encryption policies.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The best way to achieve the objective of discovering SaaS applications and blocking access to unapproved or identified as risky ones is to implement cloud infrastructure to proxy all user web traffic and control access according to centralized policy (C). This solution would allow the security architect to inspect all web traffic and enforce access control policies centrally. This solution also allows the security architect to detect and block risky SaaS applications.
NEW QUESTION # 62
An organization developed an incident response plan. Which of the following would be BEST to assess the effectiveness of the plan?
- A. Generating a checklist by organizational unit
- B. Requesting a third-party review
- C. Creating a playbook
- D. Establishing role succession and call lists
- E. Performing a tabletop exercise
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION # 63
A security analyst is assessing a new application written in Java. The security analyst must determine which vulnerabilities exist during runtime. Which of the following would provide the most exhaustive list of vulnerabilities while meeting the objective?
- A. Side-channel analysis
- B. Input validation
- C. Static analysis
- D. Dynamic analysis
- E. Fuzz testing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Dynamic analysis involves testing the application while it is running to identify vulnerabilities present during execution, providing the most exhaustive runtime vulnerability detection. Input validation is a specific security control, not a method for exhaustive testing. Side-channel analysis examines unintended information leakage but does not comprehensively assess runtime vulnerabilities.
Fuzz testing is a specific technique within dynamic analysis but does not ensure exhaustive coverage. Static analysis examines code without execution, missing runtime-specific vulnerabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 64
A network administrator who manages a Linux web server notices the following traffic:
http://corr.ptia.org/.../.../.../... /etc./shadow
Which of the following Is the BEST action for the network administrator to take to defend against this type of web attack?
- A. Validate that multifactor authentication is enabled on the server for all user accounts.
- B. Validate that the server is not deployed with default account credentials.
- C. Validate the server certificate and trust chain.
- D. Validate the server input and append the input to the base directory path.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The network administrator is noticing a web attack that attempts to access the /etc/shadow file on a Linux web server. The /etc/shadow file contains the encrypted passwords of all users on the system and is a common target for attackers. The attack uses a technique called directory traversal, which exploits a vulnerability in the web application that allows an attacker to access files or directories outside of the intended scope by manipulating the file path.
Validating the server input and appending the input to the base directory path would be the best action for the network administrator to take to defend against this type of web attack, because it would:
Check the user input for any errors, malicious data, or unexpected values before processing it by the web application.
Prevent directory traversal by ensuring that the user input is always relative to the base directory path of the web application, and not absolute to the root directory of the web server.
Deny access to any files or directories that are not part of the web application's scope or functionality.
NEW QUESTION # 65
A developer is creating a new mobile application for a company. The application uses REST API and TLS 1.2 to communicate securely with the external back-end server. Due to this configuration, the company is concerned about HTTPS interception attacks.
Which of the following would be the BEST solution against this type of attack?
- A. Cookies
- B. HSTS
- C. Wildcard certificates
- D. Certificate pinning
Answer: D
Explanation:
Reference:
Certificate pinning is a technique that can prevent HTTPS interception attacks by hardcoding the expected certificate or public key of the server in the application code, so that any certificate presented by an intermediary will be rejected. Cookies are small pieces of data that are stored by browsers to remember user preferences or sessions, but they do not prevent HTTPS interception attacks. Wildcard certificates are certificates that can be used for multiple subdomains of a domain, but they do not prevent HTTPS interception attacks. HSTS (HTTP Strict Transport Security) is a policy that forces browsers to use HTTPS connections, but it does not prevent HTTPS interception attacks. Verified Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-certificate-pinning https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide
NEW QUESTION # 66
A security analyst is reviewing the following output:
Which of the following would BEST mitigate this type of attack?
- A. Deploying a honeypot
- B. Placing a WAF inline
- C. Implementing an IDS
- D. Installing a network firewall
Answer: B
Explanation:
Network Firewall does not make sense in this scenario. Best mitigation from those available is the WAF.
NEW QUESTION # 67
A security manager is creating a standard configuration across all endpoints that handle sensitive data. Which of the following techniques should be included in the standard configuration to ensure the endpoints are hardened?
- A. Drive encryption
- B. Resource monitoring
- C. Patch management
- D. Event logging
Answer: A
Explanation:
Step by Step Explanation:
* Drive encryption protects sensitive data at rest by ensuring unauthorized access cannot expose the data if the physical endpoint is compromised.
* Patch management is a necessary security control but does not specifically address endpoint hardening for sensitive data.
* Event logging aids in monitoring and incident detection but does not directly harden endpoints.
* Resource monitoring manages system performance and availability but is unrelated to data security.
Reference: CASP+ Exam Objectives 2.1 - Implement security measures for endpoint hardening.
NEW QUESTION # 68
A security engineer based in Iceland works in an environment requiring an on-premises and cloud-based storage solution. The solution should take into consideration the following:
1. The company has sensitive data.
2. The company has proprietary data.
3. The company has its headquarters in Iceland, and the data must
always reside in that country.
Which cloud deployment model should be used?
- A. Hybrid cloud
- B. Private cloud
- C. Community cloud
- D. Public cloud
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 69
A security analyst receives an alert from the SIEM regarding unusual activity on an authorized public SSH jump server. To further investigate, the analyst pulls the event logs directly from /var/log/auth.log: graphic.ssh_auth_log.
Which of the following actions would BEST address the potential risks by the activity in the logs?
- A. Implementing host-key preferences
- B. Restricting external port 22 access
- C. Alerting the misconfigured service account password
- D. Modifying the AllowUsers configuration directive
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 70
The Chief information Officer (CIO) asks the system administrator to improve email security at the company based on the following requirements:
- Transaction being requested by unauthorized individuals.
- Complete discretion regarding client names, account numbers, and
investment information.
- Malicious attackers using email to malware and ransomeware.
- Exfiltration of sensitive company information.
The cloud-based email solution will provide anti-malware reputation-based scanning, signature- based scanning, and sandboxing.
Which of the following is the BEST option to resolve the boar's concerns for this email migration?
- A. Application whitelisting
- B. SSL VPN
- C. Data loss prevention
- D. Endpoint detection response
Answer: C
Explanation:
Data loss prevention (DLP) is the best option to resolve the board's concerns for this email migration. DLP is a set of tools and policies that aim to prevent unauthorized access, disclosure, or exfiltration of sensitive data. DLP can monitor, filter, encrypt, or block email messages based on predefined rules and criteria, such as content, sender, recipient, attachment, etc. DLP can help protect transactions, customer data, and company information from being compromised by malicious actors or accidental leaks.
NEW QUESTION # 71
An analyst determined that the current process for manually handling phishing attacks within the company is ineffective. The analyst is developing a new process to ensure phishing attempts are handled internally in an appropriate and timely manner. One of the analyst's requirements is that a blocklist be updated automatically when phishing attempts are identified. Which of the following would help satisfy this requirement?
- A. MDR deployment
- B. Containerization
- C. SOAR
- D. MSSP
- E. Virtualization
Answer: C
Explanation:
To automate the process of handling phishing attempts and updating blocklists, the best solution is to implement SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response). SOAR platforms allow organizations to define automated workflows for responding to security incidents, such as phishing attacks. In this case, SOAR can automate the identification of phishing attempts and update blocklists in real-time, improving response time and consistency. MSSP (Managed Security Service Provider) and MDR (Managed Detection and Response) are outsourced services that do not directly address the need for automation, and containerization and virtualization are unrelated to incident handling. CASP+ emphasizes the value of automation in streamlining security operations and improving response times to threats.
References:
* CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 - Enterprise Security Operations (Automation, SOAR)
* CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Security Automation and Incident Response with SOAR
NEW QUESTION # 72
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